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Tuesday, 18 February 2014

Answers and Rationals of Obs and Gynae NCLEX Questions

Answers and Rationale of Questions

Gauge your performance by counter checking your answers to the answers below. Learn more about the question by reading the rationale. If you have any disputes or questions, please direct them to the comments section.
1. Answer: 1. FSH and LH are released from the anterior pituitary gland. FSH and LH, when stimulated by gonadotropin-releasing hormone from the hypothalamus, are released from the anterior pituitary gland to stimulate follicular growth and development, growth of the graafian follicle, and production of progesterone.
2. Answer: 2. Two umbilical arteries and one umbilical vein. Blood pumped by the embryo’s heart leaves the embryo through two umbilical arteries. Once oxygenated, the blood then is returned by one umbilical vein. Arteries carry deoxygenated blood and waste products from the fetus, and veins carry oxygenated blood and provide oxygen and nutrients to the fetus.
3. Answer: 3. 150 BPM. The fetal heart rate depends in gestational age and ranges from 160-170 BPM in the first trimester but slows with fetal growth to 120-160 BPM near or at term. At or near term, if the fetal heart rate is less than 120 or more than 160 BPM with the uterus at rest, the fetus may be in distress.
4. Answer: 3. June 26, 2006. Accurate use of Naegele’s rule requires that the woman have a regular 28-day menstrual cycle. Add 7 days to the first day of the last menstrual period, subtract three months, and then add one year to that date.
5. Answer: 2. G = 2, T = 0, P = 1, A = 0, L =1. Pregnancy outcomes can be described with the acronym GTPAL.
  • “G” is Gravidity, the number of pregnancies.
  • “T” is term births, the number of born at term (38 to 41 weeks).
  • “P” is preterm births, the number born before 38 weeks gestation.
  • “A” is abortions or miscarriages, included in “G” if before 20 weeks gestation, included in parity if past 20 weeks AOE.
  • “L” is live births, the number of births of living children.
Therefore, a woman who is pregnant with twins and has a child has a gravida of 2. Because the child was delivered at 37 weeks, the number of preterm births is 1, and the number of term births is 0. The number of abortions is 0, and the number of live births is 1.
6. Answer: 2. Fetal heart rate of 180 BPM. The normal range of the fetal heart rate depends on gestational age. The heart rate is usually 160-170 BPM in the first trimester and slows with fetal growth, near and at term, the fetal heart rate ranges from 120-160 BPM. The other options are expected.
7. Answer: 1. A softening of the cervix. In the early weeks of pregnancy the cervix becomes softer as a result of increased vascularity and hyperplasia, which causes the Goodell’s sign.
8. Answer: 3. “It is the fetal movement that is felt by the mother.” Quickening is fetal movement and may occur as early as the 16th and 18th week of gestation, and the mother first notices subtle fetal movements that gradually increase in intensity. Braxton Hicks contractions are irregular, painless contractions that may occur throughout the pregnancy. A thinning of the lower uterine segment occurs about the 6th week of pregnancy and is called Hegar’s sign.
9. Answer: 4. Initiating a gentle upward tap on the cervix. Ballottement is a technique of palpating a floating structure by bouncing it gently and feeling it rebound. In the technique used to palpate the fetus, the examiner places a finger in the vagina and taps gently upward, causing the fetus to rise. The fetus then sinks, and the examiner feels a gentle tap on the finger.
10. Answers: 1, 4, 5, and 6.
The probable signs of pregnancy include:
  • Uterine Enlargement
  • Hegar’s sign or softening and thinning of the uterine segment that occurs at week 6.
  • Goodell’s sign or softening of the cervix that occurs at the beginning of the 2nd month
  • Chadwick’s sign or bluish coloration of the mucous membranes of the cervix, vagina and vulva. Occurs at week 6.
  • Ballottement or rebounding of the fetus against the examiner’s fingers of palpation
  • Braxton-Hicks contractions
  • Positive pregnancy test measuring for hCG.
Positive signs of pregnancy include:
  • Fetal Heart Rate detected by electronic device (doppler) at 10-12 weeks
  • Fetal Heart rate detected by nonelectronic device (fetoscope) at 20 weeks AOG
  • Active fetal movement palpable by the examiners
  • Outline of the fetus via radiography or ultrasound
11. Answer: 1. Dorsiflex the foot while extending the knee when the cramps occur. Legs cramps occur when the pregnant woman stretches the leg and plantar flexes the foot. Dorsiflexion of the foot while extending the knee stretches the affected muscle, prevents the muscle from contracting, and stops the cramping.
12. Answer: 4. Wash the breasts with warm water and keep them dry. The pregnant woman should be instructed to wash the breasts with warm water and keep them dry. The woman should be instructed to avoid using soap on the nipples and areola area to prevent the drying of tissues. Wearing a supportive bra with wide adjustable straps can decrease breast tenderness. Tight-fitting blouses or dresses will cause discomfort.
13. Answer: 1. Any bleeding, such as in the gums, petechiae, and purpura. Severe Preeclampsia can trigger disseminated intravascular coagulation because of the widespread damage to vascular integrity. Bleeding is an early sign of DIC and should be reported to the M.D.
14. Answer: 1. “I will maintain strict bedrest throughout the remainder of pregnancy.” Strict bed rest throughout the remainder of pregnancy is not required. The woman is advised to curtail sexual activities until the bleeding has ceased, and for 2 weeks following the last evidence of bleeding or as recommended by the physician. The woman is instructed to count the number of perineal pads used daily and to note the quantity and color of blood on the pad. The woman also should watch for the evidence of the passage of tissue.
15. Answer: 3. “I need to drink unpasteurized milk only.” All pregnant women should be advised to do the following to prevent the development of toxoplasmosis. Women should be instructed to cook meats thoroughly, avoid touching mucous membranes and eyes while handling raw meat; thoroughly wash all kitchen surfaces that come into contact with uncooked meat, wash the hands thoroughly after handling raw meat; avoid uncooked eggs and unpasteurized milk; wash fruits and vegetables before consumption, and avoid contact with materials that possibly are contaminated with cat feces, such as cat litter boxes, sandboxes, and garden soil.
16. Answer: 3. The client complains of a headache and blurred vision. If the client complains of a headache and blurred vision, the physician should be notified because these are signs of worsening Preeclampsia.
17. Answer: 3. “I need to avoid exercise because of the negative effects of insulin production.” Exercise is safe for the client with gestational diabetes and is helpful in lowering the blood glucose level.
18. Answer: 3. Respiratory rate of 10 BPM. Magnesium sulfate depresses the respiratory rate. If the respiratory rate is less than 12 breaths per minute, the physician or other health care provider needs to be notified, and continuation of the medication needs to be reassessed. A urinary output of 20 ml in a 30 minute period is adequate; less than 30 ml in one hour needs to be reported. Deep tendon reflexes of 2+ are normal. The fetal heart rate is WNL for a resting fetus.
19. Answer: 3. Clean and maintain an open airway. The immediate care during a seizure (eclampsia) is to ensure a patent airway. The other options are actions that follow or will be implemented after the seizure has ceased.
20. Answers: 1 Elevated blood pressure and 3 Facial edema. The three classic signs of preeclampsia are hypertension, generalized edema, and proteinuria. Increased respirations are not a sign of preeclampsia.
21. Answer: 1. Being affected by Rh incompatibility. Rh incompatibility can occur when an Rh-negative mom becomes sensitized to the Rh antigen. Sensitization may develop when an Rh-negative woman becomes pregnant with a fetus who is Rh positive. During pregnancy and at delivery, some of the baby’s Rh positive blood can enter the maternal circulation, causing the woman’s immune system to form antibodies against Rh positive blood. Administration of Rho(D) immune globulin prevents the woman from developing antibodies against Rh positive blood by providing passive antibody protection against the Rh antigen.
22. Answer: 4. Respirations of 10 per minute. Magnesium toxicity can occur from magnesium sulfate therapy. Signs of toxicity relate to the central nervous system depressant effects of the medication and include respiratory depression, loss of deep tendon reflexes, and a sudden drop in the fetal heart rate and maternal heart rate and blood pressure. Therapeutic levels of magnesium are 4-7 mEq/L. Proteinuria of +3 would be noted in a client with preeclampsia.
23. Answer: 3. Seizures do not occur. For a client with preeclampsia, the goal of care is directed at preventing eclampsia (seizures). Magnesium sulfate is an anticonvulsant, not an antihypertensive agent. Although a decrease in blood pressure may be noted initially, this effect is usually transient. Ankle clonus indicated hyperreflexia and may precede the onset of eclampsia. Scotomas are areas of complete or partial blindness. Visual disturbances, such as scotomas, often precede an eclamptic seizure.
24. Answers: 3, 4, 5, 6, and 7. When caring for a client receiving magnesium sulfate therapy, the nurse would monitor maternal vital signs, especially respirations, every 30-60 minutes and notify the physician if respirations are less than 12, because this would indicate respiratory depression. Calcium gluconate is kept on hand in case of magnesium sulfate overdose, because calcium gluconate is the antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity. Deep tendon reflexes are assessed hourly. Cardiac and renal function is monitored closely. The urine output should be maintained at 30 ml per hour because the medication is eliminated through the kidneys.
25. Answer: 1. Administer RhoGAM within 72 hours. RhoGAM is given within 72 hours postpartum if the client has not been sensitized already.
26. Answer: 2. Blood level of LH is too high.  It is the surge of LH secretion in mid cycle that is responsible for ovulation.
27. Answer: 3. Preparation of the uterus to receive a fertilized egg. Progesterone stimulates differentiation of the endometrium into a secretory type of tissue.
28. Answer: 2. Eighth week to the time of birth.  In the first 7-14 days the ovum is known as a blastocyst; it is called an embryo until the eighth week; the developing cells are then called a fetus until birth.
29. Answer: 1. Placenta. When placental formation is complete, around the 16th week of pregnancy; it produces estrogen and progesterone.
30. Answer: 3. An increase in blood volume. The blood volume increases by approximately 40-50% during pregnancy. The peak blood volume occurs between 30 and 34 weeks of gestation. The hematocrit decreases as a result of the increased blood volume.
31. Answer: 4. Chadwick’s sign. A purplish color results from the increased vascularity and blood vessel engorgement of the vagina.
32. Answer: 3. G5 T2 P1 A1 L4. 5 pregnancies; 2 term births; twins count as 1; one abortion; 4 living children.
33. Answer: 4. Shortness of breath on exertion. This is an expected cardiopulmonary adaptation during pregnancy; it is caused by an increased ventricular rate and elevated diaphragm.
34. Answer: 2. An increase of 300 calories a day. This is the recommended caloric increase for adult women to meet the increased metabolic demands of pregnancy.
35. Answer: 1. Acute hemolytic disease. When an Rh negative mother carries an Rh positive fetus there is a risk for maternal antibodies against Rh positive blood; antibodies cross the placenta and destroy the fetal RBC’s.
36. Answer: 2. Production of estrogen. The increase of estrogen during pregnancy causes hyperplasia of the vaginal mucosa, which leads to increased production of mucus by the endocervical glands. The mucus contains exfoliated epithelial cells.
37. Answer: 3. Neural tube defects. The alpha-fetoprotein test detects neural tube defects and Down syndrome.
38. Answer: 2. Walk around until they subside. Ambulation relieves Braxton Hicks.
39. Answer: 2. Cause decreased placental perfusion. This is because impedance of venous return by the gravid uterus, which causes hypotension and decreased systemic perfusion.
40. Answer: 1. Prolactin. Prolactin is the hormone from the anterior pituitary gland that stimulates mammary gland secretion. Oxytocin, a posterior pituitary hormone, stimulates the uterine musculature to contract and causes the “let down” reflex.
41. Answer: 4. “Snowstorm” pattern on ultrasound with no fetus or gestational sac. The chorionic villi of a molar pregnancy resemble a snowstorm pattern on ultrasound. Bleeding with a hydatidiform mole is often dark brown and may occur erratically for weeks or months.
42. Answer: 4. Telangiectasias. The dilated arterioles that occur during pregnancy are due to the elevated level of circulating estrogen. The linea nigra is a pigmented line extending from the symphysis pubis to the top of the fundus during pregnancy.
43. Answer: 3. Physiologic anemia. Hemoglobin and hematocrit levels decrease during pregnancy as the increase in plasma volume exceeds the increase in red blood cell production.
44. Answer: 2. Electrolyte imbalance. Excessive vomiting in clients with hyperemesis gravidarum often causes weight loss and fluid, electrolyte, and acid-base imbalances.
45. Answer: 1. Diet. Clients with gestational diabetes are usually managed by diet alone to control their glucose intolerance. Oral hypoglycemic agents are contraindicated in pregnancy. NPH isn’t usually needed for blood glucose control for GDM.
46. Answer: 1. Calcium gluconate. Calcium gluconate is the antidote for magnesium toxicity. Ten ml of 10% calcium gluconate is given IV push over 3-5 minutes. Hydralazine is given for sustained elevated blood pressures in preeclamptic clients.
47. Answer: 4. maternal and fetal blood are never exchanged. Only nutrients and waste products are transferred across the placenta. Blood exchange only occurs in complications and some medical procedures accidentally.
48. Answer: 2. Number of times a female has been pregnant. Gravida refers to the number of times a female has been pregnant, regardless of pregnancy outcome or the number of neonates delivered.
49. Answer: 4. Turn the woman on her side. During a fundal height measurement the woman is placed in a supine position.  This woman is experiencing supine hypotension as a result of uterine compression of the vena cava and abdominal aorta.  Turning her on her side will remove the compression and restore cardiac output and blood pressure.  Then vital signs can be assessed.  Raising her legs will not solve the problem since pressure will still remain on the major abdominal blood vessels, thereby continuing to impede cardiac output.  Breathing into a paper bag is the solution for dizziness related to respiratory alkalosis associated with hyperventilation.
50. Answer: 1. January 15, 2006. Naegele’s rule requires subtracting 3 months and adding 7 days and 1 year if appropriate to the first day of a pregnant woman’s last menstrual period.  When this rule, is used with April 8, 2005, the estimated date of birth is January 15, 2006.

Explore more NCLEX Questions

Monday, 17 February 2014

Answers of NCLEX 24 Questions

Answers and Rationale of Questions

1.     A
2.    B
3.    D
4.    B
5.    A
6.    C
7.    B
8.    B
9.    A
10. D
11. D
12. B
13. D
14. D
15. A
16. D. This is measurable and objective. 
17. B. This does not require a physician’s order. (A & D require an order; C is not appropriate for a fractured tibia)
18. C. It is specific in what to do and when.
19. B. Calling in the wound care nurse as a consultant is appropriate because he or she is a specialist in the area of wound management. Professional and competent nurses recognize limitations and seek appropriate consultation. (a. This might be appropriate after deciding on a plan of action with the wound care nurse specialist. The nurse may need to obtain orders for special wound care products.
c. Unless the nurse is knowledgeable in wound management, this could delay wound healing. Also, the current wound management plan could have been ordered by the physician. d. Another nurse most likely will not be knowledgeable about wounds, and the primary nurse would know the history of the wound management plan.)
20. A. This gives the consulting nurse facts that will influence a new plan.
(b, c, and d. These are all subjective and emotional issues/conclusions about the current treatment plan and may cause a bias in the decision of a new treatment plan by the nurse consultant.)
21. D. Because the primary nurse requested the consultation, it is important that they communicate and discuss recommendations. The primary nurse can then accept or reject the CNS recommendations. (a. Some of the recommendations may not be appropriate for this client. The primary nurse would know this information. A consultation requires review of the recommendations, but not immediate implementation. b. This would be appropriate after first talking with the CNS about recommended changes in the plan of care and the rationale. Then the primary nurse should call the physician. c. The client and family do not have the knowledge to determine whether new strategies are appropriate or not. Better to wait until the new plan of care is agreed upon by the primary nurse and physician before talking with the client and/or family.)
22. C, D, A, B.
23. B. 
24. B. This clients needs are a priority.

Tuesday, 11 February 2014

Fundamental Nursing Skills [Kindle}: Free Download

Bronchitis : 9 Nursing Care Plans

Bronchitis is inflammation of the mucous membranes of the bronchi, the airways that carry airflow from the trachea into the lungs. Bronchitis can be divided into two categories, acute and chronic, each of which has two distinct etiologies, pathologies, and therapies.

Acute bronchitis is characterized by the development of a cough, with or without the production of sputum, mucus that is expectorated (coughed up) from the respiratory tract. Acute bronchitis often occurs during the course of an acute viral illness such as the common cold or influenza. Viruses cause about 90% of cases of acute bronchitis, whereas bacteria account for fewer than 10%.

Chronic bronchitis, a type of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, is characterized by the presence of a productive cough that lasts for three months or more per year for at least two years. Chronicbronchitis most often develops due to recurrent injury to the airways caused by inhaled irritants. Cigarette smoking is the most common cause, followed by air pollution and occupational exposure to irritants.

9 Nursing Diagnosis For Bronchitis

1. Ineffective airway clearance
related to: increased production of secretions.

2. Acute pain
related to: the inflammation of the pleura.

3. Impaired gas exchange
related to: airway obstruction by secretions, spasm of the bronchus.

Nursing Diagnosis : Impaired Gas Exchange

Goal: Demonstrate improved ventilation and adequate oxygenation of tissues with blood gas analysis in the normal range and free of symptoms of respiratory distress.

Nursing Interventions Impaired Gas Exchange related to Bronchitis:

a. Assess the frequency, depth of breathing. Note the use of accessory muscles, mouth breathing, inability to speak / talk.
R / useful in the evaluation of the degree of respiratory distress and / or chronic disease process.

b. Elevate head of bed, help patients to choose a position that is easy to breathe. Encourage deep breath or breathing lips slowly as needed / individual tolerance.
R / oxygen delivery can be improved by a high seating position and breathing exercises to reduce airway collapse, dyspnea, and breath work.

c. Provide appropriate bronchodilator required. Can be administered orally, IV, rectal, or inhaled. Give oral bronchodilators or IV at the time interspersed with the action nebulizer, metered dose inhalers to extend the effectiveness of the drug. Observation of side effects: tachycardia, dysrhythmias, CNS excitation, nausea and vomiting.
R / Bronchodilators dilate the airway and helps fight the bronchial mucosal edema and muscular spasm. Because side effects can occur in this action, carefully adjusted doses for each patient, according to tolerance and clinical response.

d. Evaluate the effectiveness of the actions nebulizer, metered dose inhalers. Assess decrease shortness of breath, wheezing or crackles drop, looseness secretion, decreased anxiety. Make sure that the action is given before meals to prevent nausea and to reduce the fatigue that accompanies feeding activity.
R / Combining medication with a nebulizer aerosolized bronchodilator commonly used to control bronchoconstriction. Providing appropriate actions will reduce its effectiveness. Aerolisation ease bronchial clearance, help control the inflammatory process, and improve the function of ventilation.

e. Instruct and encourage the patient on diaphragmatic breathing and effective coughing.
R / techniques improve ventilation by opening the airway and clearing the airway of sputum. Improvement of gas exchange.

f. Provide supplemental oxygen in accordance with the indications of blood gas analysis results and patient tolerance.
R / can fix / prevent worsening hypoxia.

4. Ineffective breathing pattern
related to: bronchoconstriction, mucus.

5. Imbalanced Nutrition, Less Than Body Requirements
related to: dyspnoea, anorexia, nausea, vomiting.

6. Risk for infection
related to: the settlement of secretions, chronic disease processes.

7. Activity intolerance
related to: insufficiency of ventilation and oxygenation.

8. Anxiety
related to: changes in health status.

9. Knowledge Deficit
related to: the lack of information about the disease process and treatment at home.



Sunday, 9 February 2014

Nursing Quotes by Mother Teresa

It is not how much we do-It is how much Love we put into the doing.
Mother Teresa